1. Which of these abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be administered at regularly spaced intervals during each 24 hour period?

1. q 12h

2. qid 
   
3. q 6h.prn

5.    A patient is to receive cephalexin (Keflex) 1 gm po.  Keflex is available as 250 mg tablets.  How many tablets should be administered? 

1. 1 
   
2. 2 
   
3. 4

2. How many milligrams are equivalent to 0.045 grams?

1. 4.5 
   
2. 45 
   
3. 450

6.     A patient is to receive cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B₁₂) 30 mcg IM.  Vitamin B₁₂ is available in 100 mcg per ml.  How many milliliters should be administered? 

1. 0.1 
   
2. 0.3 
   
3. 3.0

3. Which of these doses is the smallest?

1. 01 gm. 
   
2. 0.01 mg. 
   
3. 10 mg

7.    Penicillin G sodium for injection contains 250,000 units per milliliter.  How many units would there be in 2.5 ml? 

1. 575,000 
   
2. 625,000 
   
3. 675,000

4. A child is to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil) 60 mg po.  The medication is supplied as an oral suspension containing 125 mg per 5 ml.  How many milliliters should the child receive?

1. 1.2 
   
2. 2.4 
   
3. 25

8.    A patient is to receive meperidine (Demerol) hydrochloride 75 mg and atropine sulfate 0.3 mg IM preoperatively.  Demerol is available in a prepackaged syringe containing 100 mg per ml.  Atropine is available in a vial containing 0.4 mg per ml. 

1. 1.05 
   
2. 1.5

3. 2.0

9.     A patient is to receive 500 ml of IV fluids in 3 hours.  The infusion pump should be set to deliver how many milliliters per hour? 

1. 83 
   
2. 138 
   
3. 167

1. 60 
   
2. 75 
   
3. 100 
   

10.    A patient is to receive 300 ml of IV fluid during a two and one-half hour period.  The intravenous setup delivers 15 drops per ml.  The drip mechanism should be regulated to deliver approximately how many drops per minute? 

1. 10 
   
2. 20 
   
3. 30

13.  A patient is to receive digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.35 mg IV.  Lanoxin is available in a prepackaged syringe containing 0.5 mg per 2 ml.  How many milliliters should be administered?  

1. 0.75 
   
2. 1.25 
   
3. 1.40

11.    A patient is to receive 1,000 ml of IV solution over 8 hours.  Four hours later, 620 ml remain.  The infusion set delivers 15 drops per ml.  To receive the remaining fluid within the prescribed time period the set should deliver how many drops per minute? 

1. 39 
   
2. 62 
   
3. 100

14.  Which of these is a major principle of pain management and should guide nursing action when administering prescribed analgesics to patients? 

1. The patient in pain is the authority about the pain experience. 
   
2. The patient with acute pain experiences more pain than one with chronic pain. 
   
3. The patient with psychogenic pain does not experience real pain. 
   

15.  A nurse is preparing to administer quinidine sulfate to a patient and finds this entry on the medication administration record:  “Quinidine 200 mg”.  What initial nursing action is most appropriate? 

1. Administering quinidine po with other scheduled medications. 
   
2. Checking the physician’s order for the quinidine in the patient’s chart. 
   
3. Counting the patient’s pulse for a full minute before administering the quinidine. 
   

1. If dizziness occurs as a side effect, schedule drug administration to allow for a half hour rest period after ingestion. 
   
2. Should any dizziness occur, skip the next dose of the drug to determine if it is drug related. 
   
3. Report any dizziness, as a dosage change may be indicated.

16.  An older adult patient who is receiving a large volume intravenous infusion of 5% glucose in water develops tachycardia and dyspnea.  Which of these nursing actions is indicated first? 

1. Check the infusion site for signs of infiltration. 
   
2. Decrease the rate of the infusion. 
   
3. Monitor oral fluid intake.

1. Before breakfast. 
   
2. With lunch. 
   
3. At bedtime.

17.  Trimethobenzamide hydrochloride (Tigan) suppositories are prescribed for a patient to control nausea and vomiting.  The nurse should use which of these measures when administering the Tigan suppository? 

1. Having the patient take slow, deep breaths during insertion. 
   
2. Asking the patient to assume a lithotomy position for insertion. 
   
3. Checking the patient’s vital signs prior to insertion.

1. Temperature. 
   
2. Pulse rate. 
   
3. Urinary output.

21.  A recently hired nurse is administering medications to residents in a long-term care facility where identification wrist-bands are not used.  The nurse does not know many of the residents.  Which of these actions would most safely ensure that they receive the correct medications? 

1. Ask the residents their names prior to drug administration. 
   
2. Call out the full name of each resident. 
   
3. Have a staff member who knows the residents identify them by name. 
   

1. Encourage the patient to reconsider taking the medication. 
   
2. Label the medication and replace it for use at later time. 
   
3. Discard the medication in the presence of a witness and chart the action.

22.  A major advantage of the patient controlled analgesia (PCA) pump is that 

1. The nurse’s assessments of the patient’s pain can be safely performed at less frequent intervals. 
   
2. The nurse and patient are provided with a record of how much medication is used. 
   
3. The patient’s pain relief is more sustained.

1. Depress the bulb of the syringe to facilitate the flow of the medication. 
   
2. Avoid the addition of water into the syringe to prevent unnecessary dilution of the medication. 
   
3. Hold the syringe high enough to allow the medication to flow in by gravity. 
   

23.  A patient has an order for acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) 0.6 gm po q 4h prn for temperature of 102° F (39°C) or greater.  The patient’s temperature at 8 AM is 102.4°F (39.1°C) and the nurse administers Aspirin.  It is essential for the nurse to record the time of Aspirin administration and the 

1. Patient’s temperature at 9 AM. 
   
2. Expected outcome of the medication. 
   
3. Patient’s pulse and blood pressure. 
   

1. Use a 22-gauge, 1-inch needle when preparing the injection. 
   
2. Aspirate after insertion to check for entry into a blood vessel. 
   
3. Apply gentle pressure to injection site for 5 to 10 seconds without massage.

27. Which of these instructions is appropriate to give to a patient who has angina pectoris and is to take sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) as needed? 

1. “If pain isn’t relieved after one tablet dissolves, wait one half hour and take a second tablet.” 
   
2. “If pain isn’t relieved after one tablet dissolves, you may take another tablet.” 
   
3. “If pain isn’t relieved after one tablet dissolves, next time start by taking two tablets.” 
   

30.  A patient is receiving 1,000 ml of 5% glucose and 0.45% normal saline with 40 mEq of potassium chloride.  It is most important for the nurse to monitor the patient’s 

1. Pulse rate. 
   
2. Daily weight. 
   
3. Skin turgor.

28. A patient is to receive antitubercular therapy at home.  Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions for this patient? 

1. Take the drugs as ordered by the physician. 
   
2. Limit contacts with family members to short periods. 
   
3. Eat foods that are especially high in iron.

1. Draw up each insulin in a separate syringe. 
   
2. Withdraw the NPH insulin first and then the Regular Insulin in the same syringe. 
   
3. Withdraw the Regular Insulin first and then the NPH insulin in the same syringe. 
   

29.  When administering eye drops to a patient, the nurse should place the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to 

1. Reduce systemic absorption of medication. 
   
2. Increase circulation to the area. 
   
3. Prevent injury to the cornea.

1. High-Fowler’s. 
   
2. Right side-lying. 
   
3. Prone.

33.  A patient is to take prednisone 10 mg po qid.  The nurse should schedule this medication to be administered 

1. Before meals and at bedtime. 
   
2. Every six hours. 
   
3. After meals and at bedtime. 
   

1. Acoustic nerve damage. 
   
2. Hypertension. 
   
3. Hypoglycemia.

34.  A patient is to use miconazole nitrate (Monistat) vaginal suppositories for three consecutive days.  Which of these instructions should the nurse give the patient? 

1. “Insert the Monistat one finger length into the vagina.” 
   
2. “Use a non-medicated douche before inserting the Monistat.” 
   
3. “Store the Monistat at room temperature for easier use.” 
   

1. “Do you wear soft contact lenses?” 
   
2. “Do you wear a hearing aid?” 
   
3. “Do you wear dentures?”

35.  When a patient is receiving morphine sulfate for pain control, the patient is likely to have 

1. A hyperactive cough reflex. 
   
2. Decreased intestinal mobility. 
   
3. A widening pulse pressure. 
   

1. Produce fewer side effects. 
   
2. Be more fully metabolized in the liver. 
   
3. Have a prolonged duration of action.

36.  Antibiotic therapy should be carried out for the prescribed length of time for which of these reasons? 

1. To prevent the occurrence of superinfections. 
   
2. To encourage the development of antibodies.
3. To eradicate the targeted organism.

1. Excessive tearing. 
   
2. Constipation. 
   
3. Increased sexual desires.

41. Because of the action of the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), a patient receiving this drug should be given which of these instructions? 

1. “Include potassium-rich foods in the diet.” 
   
2. “Restrict sodium intake to a minimum.” 
   
3. “Avoid eating high-fiber foods.”

1. It promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen.

2. It stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin. 
   
3. In enhances the passage of glucose across cell membranes. 
   

42.  A patient is being treated for angina pectoris with nifedipine (Procardia).  Which of these side effects is likely to occur? 

1. Petechiae. 
   
2. Peripheral edema. 
   
3. Retinal detachment.

1. “Have a snack in the mid-afternoon.” 
   
2. “Be sure and eat lunch by noon.” 
   
3. “Eat breakfast immediately after giving your injection.” 
   

43.  Lidocaine (Xylocaine) hydrochloride is used therapeutically to 

1. Induce alterations in the automatic regulation of the heart. 
   
2. Slow myocardial muscle cell repolarization. 
   
3. Control ventricular irritability.

1. Increase white blood cell life span. 
   
2. Stimulate red blood cell production. 
   
3. Produce hemolysis of abnormal platelets.

44.  A patient who has recently started on quinidine sulfate therapy is to be discharged.  Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions the nurse gives the patient? 

1. Notify the physician if feelings of faintness occur.
2. Increase the intake of fruit, fruit juices, and milk.
3. If nausea occurs take one dose of a sodium bicarbonate antacid such as Alka-Seltzer.

A. Levodopa (Larodopa). 

B.  Benztropine mesylate (Cogentin). 

C.  Methocarbamol (Robaxin).

49.  Patients who have been abusing amphetamines or cocaine are likely to display which of these symptoms when these drugs are abruptly withdrawn? 

1. Dryness of mouth. 
   
2. Depression. 
   
3. Pedal edema.

1. It depresses the white blood cell count. 
   
2. It increases the rate at which platelets multiply. 
   
3. It causes local irritation when given intravenously.

50.  A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for a malignancy is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen), a colony stimulating factor.  The purpose of Neupogen is to 

1. Stimulate the metabolism of T cells in the lymph nodes. 
   
2. Regulate the production of neutrophils in the bone marrow. 
   
3. Increases the destruction of monocytes in the liver. 
   

1. Urinary retention. 
   
2. Disorientation. 
   
3. Muscular rigidity.

51.  A patient is receiving the antineoplastic drug methotrexate (Amethopterin) and is taking leucovorin calcium (Calcium Folenate).  The purpose of the Calcium Folenate is to 

1. Protect normal cells from the effects of Amethopterin. 
   
2. Increase the duration that Amethopterin remains active. 
   
3. Potentiate the action of Amethopterin.

1. Lightheadedness. 
   
2. Jaundice. 
   
3. Pedal edema.

55.  A patient has received flurazepam (Dalmane) for sleep.  Because of the effect of this drug, which of these nursing actions is appropriate? 

1. Observe the patient for signs of widening pulse pressure. 
   
2. Encourage the patient to sleep in semi-Fowler’s position. 
   
3. Keep a night light on in the patient’s room. 
   

1. To neutralize the iron-binding factor in the red blood cells. 
   
2. To decrease the possibility of red blood cell clumping. 
   
3. To stimulate red blood cell production.

56.  When anticonvulsive medications such as phenytoin (Dilantin) sodium are stopped abruptly, the patient is at risk for the development of 

1. A severe hypoglycemic reaction. 
   
2. A cerebral vascular occlusion. 
   
3. Status epilepticus.

1. Indomethacin (Indocin). 
   
2. Digoxin (Lanoxin). 
   
3. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) hydrochloride.